analysis from EUR 179
Post from iGENEA to 06.07.2011 16:07:59
1. No, there is no connection between blood types and haplogroups or tribes. Every blood type has a higher or lower frequency in certain regions, but all blood types are wide spread.
2. Slavs are indoeuropean like germanic and blatic tribes and therefore share common ancestors. A good example is the haplogroup R1a1a1 which exists among all of these ancient tribes and also modern nations. This is true for all slavic countries.
3. The modern population of Europe originated from ancient Europeans (arrived here more than 30.000 years ago), neolithic farmers (not earlier than 10.000 years ago) and Indoeuropeans which spread not longer than 5.000 years ago. There Europeans originated from several populations which had more people than just a few couples.
Post from Andrey to 05.07.2011 13:07:09
Good afternoon iGENEA! I think it would be very interesting to know the opinion of iGENEA's scientists on the following subjects:
1. Is there any relation or connection between a blood type (for example Rh system) and the haplogroups, tribes or modern nations?
2. Do modern slavs (Eastern, Western and Southern) have common roots with Germanic and Baltick nations or this statement may be applied only to Eastern and Western Slavs. For example can we say that Poles or Ukrainians have common roots with Germans or Dutch?
3. Is it true to say that modern population of Europe originate from a few couples of men and women?
Thank for your answer beforehand!
Post from Rozeta to 24.06.2011 19:06:01
Thank You for the reply, Mr. Scholz!
Post from iGENEA to 23.06.2011 15:06:22
Sorry about that Rozeta, it is sometimes confusing to use the same word in different languages where its written similar but different (Slaves is french spelling).
As you can see i used the correct spelling in the rest of the post, i now changed this mistake.
Post from Rozeta to 22.06.2011 20:06:07
It was written in the
Post from iGENEA to 01.03.2010 07:03:12
"As far as i know, there is no historical evidence, that the Slaves could have originated there and later moved to the Ukraine and then back again to the Balkans."
I have a question for Mr. Roman C. Scholz:
Was the word "Slaves" used above an intentional or unintentional mistake?
Post from Metodija to 01.03.2010 18:03:13
First I would like to thank you for your quick answer. I have been looking at some very old history books. One dated 1601 (Mauro Orbini, "Slavic Kingdom"), other dated 1532 (autor: Vinko Priboevic). Both books contain strange information, that is that Phillip II of Macedon, father of Alexander was Slavic. Priboevic mentions that his language was simmilar to "Moscowitians" (Russians). I tried to find a political reason, but that proved to be dificult since books are from XVI centry. Also, something else came to my mind, Ancient greek historian Arrian, says that there is a "Racial Rivality" between Helenes and Macedonians. The only possibility for Racial distinction is Blond(er) versus Dark(er), cause both Hellenes and Macedones belong to white race (modern greeks say that there was no difference at all!!)
That was the basic reason to ask for any possibility of Slav presence to Balkans (Dalmatia, Macedonia perhaps) prior to six centry.
It is also as adittion to what I said, good to mention that there are historians that deny the possibility western Ukraine to be the slavic place of origin, and usually they offer the Balkans as Slavic place of origin.
Once again, thank you for your time,
Post from iGENEA to 01.03.2010 07:03:12
i think you speak of the haplogroup I2 that was formerly called I1b. These names change quite often, therefore it is better to use the shorthand names that do not change.
I2 is I-M438.
The subgroup that has a frequency of 50-60% in that area is I2a2 also called I-M423.
But this high frequency indicates, that this group also originated from there.
That happend about 8.800 years ago and such old groups can not be connected with only one ancient tribe. Because of that it is theoretically also possible, that the Slavs that came to the balkans from more eastern areas 1.500 years ago partially belonged to this group - but only to a small extend.
As far as i know, there is no historical evidence, that the Slavs could have originated there and later moved to the Ukraine and then back again to the Balkans.
That would also not fit the distribution of this group in this area and in other areas where the Slavs moved or already lived 1.500 years ago.
Post from Metodija to 28.02.2010 09:02:14
I have been looking at some researches (probably igenea's but published on some forums), where some of the markers specific for so caled "Slavic nations" are widely distibuted in the area around the city of Dubrovnik in Croatia.
Historicaly spoken, Slavs originate from Western Ukraine, but it is a bit tricky, that the marker I1b* (frequent at Slavs), is about 50-60% in this area.
I was interested about the genetical posiibility, this location to be proto-slavic (populated with slavic tribes, long before 6 centry AD), which is historically incorect, but a combination of two autors (Roberto Salinas Price, Mexico and Tomas Spevak, Poland), says that Troy is located somewhere around Dubrovnik, and population is Slavic... (?)
Is it possibile that Slav people actually originate in this area?
and thank you for your time